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Welcome to PMP Sample Exam!
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1. A leadership style that is a mix of transactional and charismatic characteristics is called
Transformational
Transactional
Interactional
Charismatic
2. What is the term used to describe the temporary effort made to produce a distinctive product, service, or outcome, with a clearly defined start and finish?
Product
Project
Program
Portfolio
3. A project life cycle that defines deliverables early and progressively refines them is known as
Predictive
Iterative
Incremental
Hybrid
4. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the decomposition of total project work into work packages involves five steps: 1) identifying and analyzing deliverables, 2) structuring and organizing the WBS, 3) breaking down the WBS into activities, 4) developing and assigning identification codes, and 5)
Verifying the completeness of the deliverables' decomposition
Estimating efforts for the activities
Sequencing the activities
Decomposing WBS further
5. When a project scope change is requested, what should the project manager do first?
Implement the change immediately to avoid delays
Document the change request and assess its impact on the project
Inform the team to start working on the change
Reject the change to maintain the original project plan
6. Legitimate, expert, referent, and punishment are all types of which of the following?
Leadership styles
Decision-making techniques
Conflict resolution strategies
Power and influence types
7. A project in progress has a BAC of $155,000 and an EAC of $140,000. What is the Variance at Completion (VAC)?
$15,000
$155,000
$140,000
-$15,000
8. You are starting a new project and plan to outsource the riskiest work package to a vendor. What type of contract should you use?
Fixed-Price Contract
Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee Contract
Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee Contract
Time and Materials Contract
9. What is the primary focus of Agile teams during a project?
Completing tasks according to a strict schedule
Delivering a final product after all phases are complete
Iterating and delivering small, incremental improvements
Following a detailed project plan and avoiding changes
10. Which of the following typically represents the greatest expense on most projects?
Equipment
Material
Resources
Travel
11. What is the primary characteristic of analogous estimating in project management?
Estimating costs based on detailed work breakdown structures
Using historical data from similar past projects to estimate costs or duration
Applying mathematical models to predict future project performance
Involving team members in collaborative estimation sessions
12. What is the primary purpose of a project charter in project management?
Define the project scope and detailed tasks
Authorize the project manager to use resources
Document the team's roles and responsibilities
Create a detailed project schedule and budget
13. Which of the following values is emphasized in the Agile Manifesto?
Comprehensive documentation over working software
Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
Responding to change over following a plan
Following a plan over responding to change
14. What does Work Performance Information (WPI) primarily provide in project management?
A detailed breakdown of project costs and budgets
Insights into how project work is progressing compared to the plan
A high-level summary of project scope and objectives
The final acceptance criteria for project deliverables
15. What does Work Performance Data primarily consist of in project management?
Aggregated and analyzed project metrics and performance reports
Raw observations and measurements from project activities
Detailed project plans and schedules
Final project deliverables and acceptance criteria
16. Which of the following techniques is effective for a project manager in addressing team concerns?
Avoiding conflict and not addressing team issues directly
Conducting regular team meetings and open forums for discussion
Ignoring feedback from team members to maintain focus on deadlines
Delegating all team-related issues to a third-party consultant
17. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following needs must be fulfilled before higher-level needs can be addressed?
Self-Actualization Needs
Esteem Needs
Safety Needs
Physiological Needs
18. What is the primary purpose of an information management system in project management?
To manage project schedules and budgets
To store, organize, and retrieve project-related information
To handle project team communication and collaboration
To develop detailed project plans and scope statements
19. Which process in project management is responsible for creating the cost baseline?
Estimate Costs
Determine Budget
Control Costs
Plan Cost Management
20. Which of the following correctly represents the typical phases in a project life cycle?
Initiation, Planning, Execution, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
Planning, Executing, Delivering, Testing, Closing
Proposal, Design, Implementation, Testing, Maintenance
Concept, Development, Implementation, Review, Support
21. What is the primary purpose of a Minimum Viable Product (MVP) in product development?
To deliver a fully-featured product to the market
To test the market with the least effort and resources
To create a prototype with all intended features
To ensure the product meets all regulatory requirements
22. Which process in project procurement management involves handling disputes, changes, and contract modifications?
Contract Closure
Claims Administration
Vendor Selection
Performance Reporting
23. What does the term scope creep refer to in project management?
The process of formally adding new requirements to the project scope
Uncontrolled changes or continuous growth in a project’s scope
Reducing project scope to meet deadlines and budget constraints
The intentional exclusion of certain deliverables from the project scope
24. Which project management process ensures that the information needs of stakeholders are met and that communication is effective throughout the project?
Monitor Communications
Develop Project Charter
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Plan Communications Management
25. You are managing a software development project where the focus is on continuously delivering features as they are completed, without working in fixed iterations or sprints. The team pulls work items from a prioritized backlog whenever capacity is available. Which Agile approach is the team most likely using?
Scrum
Flow-based Agile
Waterfall
Extreme Programming (XP)
26. You are leading a project where the team works in fixed time-boxed cycles, delivering a set of features at the end of each cycle. The team meets regularly to plan, review, and adjust their work for the next cycle. Which Agile approach is the team most likely using?
Flow-based Agile
Iteration-based Agile
Waterfall
Critical Path Method (CPM)
27. What does the scope baseline in project management typically include?
The project's budget, schedule, and resource plan
The project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary
The project communication plan and risk management plan
The project contract and stakeholder engagement plan
28. Which of the following represents a fixed reference point used to measure project performance in terms of timing?
Project Scope Statement
Project Baseline Schedule
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Risk Management Plan
29. Which process in project management is responsible for reviewing, approving, and managing changes to the project scope, schedule, and cost?
Plan Quality Management
Perform Integrated Change Control
Develop Project Charter
Control Resources
30. At which stage of a project do stakeholders typically have the greatest opportunity to influence its outcome?
During the project execution phase
After project completion
During the project initiation phase
In the project monitoring and controlling phase
31. After changes have been approved during a project, which process is responsible for implementing these changes and managing the ongoing project work?
Perform Integrated Change Control
Direct and Manage Project Work
Develop Project Management Plan
Monitor and Control Project Work
32. During a project, the project manager needs to predict the future costs required to complete the remaining work based on current performance and planned activities. This approach is part of which cost management technique?
Cost-Benefit Analysis
Forecasting
Earned Value Management (EVM)
Budget Estimation
33. A project manager is using Earned Value Management (EVM) to monitor project performance and needs to estimate the remaining costs required to complete the project. Which EVM-related technique is the project manager applying?
Cost Variance (CV)
Estimate to Complete (ETC)
Cost Performance Index (CPI)
Schedule Performance Index (SPI)
34. A project manager led the team through various workshops to gather and clarify the requirements for a new project. What process has the project manager performed?
Perform Integrated Change Control
Conduct a Stakeholder Analysis
Collect Requirements
Develop a Project Charter
35. Which chart is used to visually track the progress of work completed versus work remaining, showing how the project's scope is evolving over time?
Gantt Chart
Burnup Chart
Histogram
Kanban Board
36. In Agile project management, which metric measures the amount of work a team completes during a sprint or iteration, helping to estimate future performance?
Burnup Rate
Cycle Time
Velocity
Lead Time
37. Which metric represents the total time it takes for a single work item to move from the start of the process to completion?
Lead Time
Velocity
Cycle Time
Burnup Rate
38. Which metric indicates the total time from when a customer request is made until the product or service is delivered?
Cycle Time
Velocity
Burnup Rate
Lead Time
39. Douglas McGregor’s leadership theory, which divides managerial assumptions into two distinct categories about employee motivation and behavior, is known as:
Transactional and Transformational Leadership Theory
Theory X and Theory Y
Servant Leadership Theory
Situational Leadership Theory
40. In a large organization, a newly established Project Management Office (PMO) is tasked with setting standards, providing training, and ensuring consistent project management practices across all departments. What type of PMO is this organization most likely implementing?
Supportive
Controlling
Directive
Consultative
41. During a project, the project manager and team regularly review and track identified risks to ensure that mitigation strategies are effective and to adjust plans as necessary. Which process are they performing?
Plan Risk Management
Identify Risks
Monitor Risks
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
42. A company is considering two investment projects. Project A requires an initial investment of $100,000 and is expected to generate annual cash inflows of $25,000. Project B requires an initial investment of $120,000 and is expected to generate annual cash inflows of $30,000. Which financial metric will help determine how long it will take for each project to repay its initial investment?
Net Present Value (NPV)
Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
Payback Period
Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR)
43. During a project, a newly formed team is experiencing significant conflicts and disagreements as members assert their opinions and challenge each other's ideas. This period of tension and debate is characteristic of which stage of team formation?
Forming
Norming
Performing
Storming
44. Which project management knowledge area focuses on defining, sequencing, estimating the duration of activities, and developing and controlling the project schedule?
Project Scope Management
Project Quality Management
Project Cost Management
Project Schedule Management
45. In project management, which tool helps clarify roles and responsibilities by defining who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each task or deliverable?
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Gantt Chart
RACI Matrix
PERT Chart
46. Which estimating technique involves breaking down a project into smaller components, estimating the cost or duration for each component, and then aggregating these estimates to determine the total project cost or duration?
Analogous Estimating
Parametric Estimating
Three-Point Estimating
Bottom-Up Estimating
47. In a project team consisting of 6 members, the project manager is trying to determine the total number of possible communication channels within the team. What is the total number of communication channels?
10
15
20
30
48. Which type of dependency is defined by project constraints or regulations that dictate the order of tasks, where one task must be completed before another can begin?
External Dependency
Discretionary Dependency
Mandatory Dependency
Internal Dependency
49. A project manager uses the three-point estimating technique to estimate the duration of a task. The optimistic estimate (O) is 5 days, the most likely estimate (M) is 8 days, and the pessimistic estimate (P) is 12 days. What is the expected duration (days) of the task?
7
8
8.33
9
50. According to the PMBOK® Guide, which of the following methods describes how project life cycle phases can be performed?
Sequential, Iterative, and Parallel
Sequential, Iterative, and Overlapping
Iterative, Parallel, and Combined
Sequential, Concurrent, and Combined
51. Which technique is best suited for calculating the probability of a project finishing by a specific date?
Critical Path Method (CPM)
Earned Value Management (EVM)
Monte Carlo Simulation
Gantt Chart
52. A project manager is estimating the cost of constructing a new office building. They decide to use historical data and mathematical models to determine the cost per square foot, which will then be multiplied by the total square footage of the building to arrive at the project cost. Which estimating technique is the project manager using?
Analogous Estimating
Parametric Estimating
Bottom-Up Estimating
Three-Point Estimating
53. A construction project has a total budget of $500,000. So far, the project has spent $200,000 and is 40% complete. The project manager wants to determine how much more money will be needed to complete the project. Using the current performance, what is the Estimate to Complete (ETC)?
$200,000
$300,000
$450,000
$500,000
54. A project manager wants to determine the potential financial impact of risks on the project’s budget. They use statistical techniques to model the combined effect of various risks, estimating the probability of different cost outcomes. Which type of analysis is the project manager performing?
Qualitative Risk Analysis
Quantitative Risk Analysis
Root Cause Analysis
Sensitivity Analysis
55. A project manager is assessing risks by prioritizing them based on their likelihood of occurrence and potential impact on project objectives, without using numerical data or complex models. Which type of risk analysis is the project manager conducting?
Quantitative Risk Analysis
Qualitative Risk Analysis
Monte Carlo Simulation
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Analysis
56. In a project schedule, Task A has an early start (ES) of Day 5, an early finish (EF) of Day 10, a late start (LS) of Day 8, and a late finish (LF) of Day 13. What is the Total Float (days) for Task A?
0
2
3
5
57. In Agile project management, what is the primary function of the Product Backlog?
To assign tasks to team members
To list and prioritize features, enhancements, and fixes needed in the product
To track the project’s overall progress
To document the project’s final deliverables
58. Which of the following is specifically set aside in a project to address unforeseen risks and uncertainties that were not anticipated during planning?
Contingency Reserve
Project Budget
Management Reserve
Cost Baseline
59. Which of the following is specifically set aside in a project to address known risks that have been identified and analyzed during the planning phase?
Management Reserve
Cost Baseline
Contingency Reserve
Project Budget
60. Which of the following tools is primarily used to visualize the remaining work versus time in an Agile project?
Gantt Chart
Earned Value Chart
Burnup Chart
Burndown Chart
61. In the context of Agile, what characterizes an "I" shaped individual?
A person with extensive skills and knowledge in several areas
A person with profound expertise in a single area and a broad, but less deep, understanding of other areas
A person with superficial knowledge across various domains and no specialized expertise
A person with deep knowledge in multiple specialized fields but limited general knowledge
62. In Agile methodology, how is a "T" shaped person described?
An individual with extensive knowledge and skills in several areas without deep specialization
An individual with deep expertise in one particular area and a broad range of knowledge across other areas
An individual with general knowledge across multiple areas and no specialized expertise
An individual with specialized skills in multiple domains but limited general understanding
63. Which of the following describes a "starvation" ending for a project?
The project is completed successfully and integrated into the organization’s systems
The project is terminated abruptly due to lack of resources or funding
The project scope is expanded with additional features or goals beyond the original plan
The project is integrated with other projects to form a larger initiative
64. A company invests $5,000 at an annual discount rate of 6%. What will be the future value of this investment after 10 years?
$8,954.00
$9,000.00
$8,500.00
$7,500.00
65. A company plans to invest in a project that requires an initial outlay of $30,000. The project is expected to provide a cash flow of $50,000 after 8 years. If the discount rate is 7%, what is the Net Present Value (NPV) of this investment?
-$914.19
$10,873.43
$8,256.85
$7,785.16
66. A company is evaluating an investment that requires an initial outlay of $25,000. The investment is expected to yield a return of $40,000 after 6 years. If the discount rate is 5%, what is the Net Present Value (NPV) of the investment?
$8,036.34
$9,443.28
$11,135.14
$10,415.40
67. A company is evaluating three potential investment projects. The details are as follows: Project A: Requires an initial investment of $50,000 and is expected to generate cash flows of $15,000 per year for 5 years. The discount rate is 10%. Requires an initial investment of $60,000 and is expected to generate a single lump sum cash flow of $90,000 in 4 years. The discount rate is 8%. Project C: Requires an initial investment of $40,000 and is expected to generate cash flows of $12,000 per year for 6 years. The discount rate is 9%. Which project should the company select based on the highest Net Present Value (NPV)?
Project A
Project B
Project C
None
68. Which of the following statements best describes the Internal Rate of Return (IRR)?
IRR is the discount rate that makes the future value of all cash flows equal to zero in a discounted cash flow analysis.
IRR is the discount rate that makes the net present value (NPV) of all cash flows equal to zero in a discounted cash flow analysis.
IRR is the discount rate that makes the initial investment equal to the sum of all future cash flows in a discounted cash flow analysis.
IRR is the discount rate that maximizes the net present value (NPV) of all cash flows in a discounted cash flow analysis.
69. Which project should XYZ Corporation select based on the highest Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR)?
Project A: Cost is $500,000 and Benefit: $750,000
Project B: Cost is $300,000 and Benefit: $450,000
Project B: Cost is $200,000 and Benefit: $320,000
All projects have the same BCR
70. Which of the following tools is best used for organizing a large set of ideas, opinions, or issues into meaningful categories during a brainstorming session?
Gantt Chart
Fishbone Diagram
Affinity Diagram
Pareto Chart
71. Which of the following tools is most effective for identifying and prioritizing the most significant factors contributing to a problem, based on the 80/20 rule?
Histogram
Pareto Chart
Control Chart
Scatter Diagram
72. Which of the following tools is most appropriate for identifying the root causes of a problem by categorizing potential causes into major categories?
Flowchart
Fishbone Diagram
Control Chart
Histogram
73. Which of the following project management techniques is specifically used to address resource over-allocation by adjusting the project schedule?
Critical Path Method
Earned Value Management
Resource Leveling
Scope Creep Management
74. Which of the following techniques is used to optimize the use of resources within a project schedule without altering the project’s overall duration?
Resource Leveling
Critical Path Method
Resource Smoothing
Scope Definition
75. Which of the following techniques is used to manage resource constraints by redistributing resource allocation without changing the project's overall scope or duration?
Resource Leveling
Resource Smoothing
Resource Equalization
Critical Path Method
76. Which schedule compression technique is the project manager using by adding extra resources to shorten the project duration?
Fast Tracking
Crashing
Scope Creep
Resource Leveling
77. Which schedule compression technique is the project manager using by overlapping tasks to shorten the project duration?
Crashing
Fast Tracking
Resource Smoothing
Scope Creep
78. Which of the following types of estimates typically provides a high level of precision and confidence, with a cost and schedule accuracy within a range of ±5%?
Rough Order of Magnitude Estimate
Definitive Estimate
Budgetary Estimate
Ballpark Estimate
79. A Budgetary Estimate is used in the early stages of project planning and is characterized by a broad range of accuracy, typically within ±15%. This estimate provides a preliminary idea of costs based on limited information and is used for initial budgeting and approval.
Definitive Estimate
Budgetary Estimate
Rough Order of Magnitude Estimate
Ballpark Estimate
80. Which of the following types of estimates is typically used in the early stages of project planning, providing a broad accuracy range of ±35%?
Definitive Estimate
Budgetary Estimate
Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) Estimate
Ballpark Estimate
81. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between the concepts of quality and grade in the context of product management?
A high-grade product is always of high quality.
Quality refers to how well a product meets its requirements, while grade refers to the category or rank of the product based on its features.
A low-quality product can still be considered high-grade if it has superior features.
Grade refers to the consistency of a product's performance, while quality refers to its durability.
82. Which of the following quality costs is associated with the activities involved in measuring, evaluating, or auditing products or services to ensure they meet quality standards?
Prevention
Appraisal
Internal Failure
External Failure
83. Which of the following quality costs is associated with activities designed to prevent defects and ensure that products or services meet quality standards before they occur?
Prevention
Appraisal
Internal Failure
External Failure
84. Which of the following quality costs is incurred when defects are identified before the product is delivered to the customer, leading to activities such as rework or scrap?
Prevention
Appraisal
Internal Failure
External Failure
85. Which of the following quality costs is incurred when defects are found after the product has been delivered to the customer, resulting in expenses such as warranty claims, returns, and repairs?
Prevention
Appraisal
Internal Failure
External Failure
86. Which of the following statements best describes the core principle of Total Quality Management (TQM)?
TQM focuses primarily on increasing production output while reducing costs.
TQM is centered around continuous improvement in all aspects of an organization, with a strong focus on customer satisfaction.
TQM is a top-down management approach where only senior management is responsible for quality improvements.
TQM emphasizes the use of cutting-edge technology as the sole method for achieving high quality.
87. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle in quality management?
To develop a project plan that minimizes risks and maximizes profits.
To implement a new process immediately without prior testing or review.
To provide a structured approach for continuous improvement by planning, implementing, reviewing, and refining processes.
To establish a one-time corrective action plan that permanently fixes quality issues.
88. Given the defect rate of 3.4 defects per million opportunities (DPMO), which of the following Six Sigma levels has XYZ Manufacturing achieved?
Three Sigma
Four Sigma
Five Sigma
Six Sigma
89. Which of the following sampling methods is best suited for quality control when the focus is on evaluating whether items meet specific pass/fail criteria?
Attribute Sampling
Variable Sampling
Stratified Sampling
Systematic Sampling
90. Which of the following sampling methods is best suited for quality control when the focus is on measuring the degree to which a product meets specific numerical specifications?
Attribute Sampling
Variable Sampling
Stratified Sampling
Systematic Sampling
91. In quality control, what does the Rule of Seven indicate when applied to a control chart?
If seven consecutive data points fall within the control limits, the process is considered out of control.
If seven consecutive data points fall on one side of the centerline, it suggests a potential shift or trend in the process.
If seven data points are exactly at the control limits, the process is in control.
If seven data points exceed the upper control limit, it indicates a stable process.
92. When faced with a conflict between team members over a project approach, which of the following conflict resolution strategies might involve a manager making a decision that the team must follow, without seeking input from the team?
Collaborating
Compromising
Avoiding
Forcing
93. In a situation where team members are in disagreement about the direction of a project, which of the following conflict resolution strategies involves postponing or sidestepping the issue rather than addressing it directly?
Collaborating
Compromising
Avoiding
Forcing
94. When two departments in a company have conflicting views on resource allocation, which of the following conflict resolution strategies involves each side giving up something to reach a mutually acceptable solution?
Collaborating
Compromising
Avoiding
Forcing
95. When making a strategic decision about whether to invest in a new project with uncertain outcomes, which of the following factors is most relevant to understanding how much risk an organization is willing to accept?
Risk Appetite
Risk Avoidance
Risk Transfer
Risk Tolerance
96. When assessing how much risk an organization can handle in a new business venture, which of the following concepts measures the organization's capacity to endure potential losses or uncertainties?
Risk Appetite
Risk Tolerance
Risk Transfer
Risk Avoidance
97. When evaluating how well a project can withstand and recover from unexpected disruptions or challenges, which of the following concepts is most relevant?
Risk Tolerance
Risk Appetite
Project Resilience
Risk Transfer
98. When visualizing data to show the relationship between three variables, including the impact of each variable on the others, which of the following types of charts would be most appropriate?
Bar Chart
Line Chart
Pie Chart
Bubble Chart
99. In a project where a team has identified potential risks associated with deploying a new software system, they decide to eliminate the risk by choosing not to implement the system at all. Which of the following risk management strategies are they using?
Risk Mitigation
Risk Transfer
Risk Acceptance
Risk Avoidance
100. A company is concerned about potential financial losses from data breaches associated with its new online platform. To address this concern, the company decides to purchase cyber insurance to cover any potential damages. Which of the following risk management strategies is the company using?
Risk Avoidance
Risk Mitigation
Risk Acceptance
Risk Transfer
101. A tech startup discovers that a new regulation offers significant tax incentives for companies investing in renewable energy technologies. The startup decides to invest heavily in these technologies to capitalize on the tax benefits and gain a competitive advantage. Which of the following risk management strategies is the startup using?
Risk Avoidance
Risk Mitigation
Risk Acceptance
Risk Exploitation
102. A construction company partners with another firm to undertake a large and complex project. Both companies agree to split the potential financial losses and profits equally. Which of the following risk management strategies are they using?
Risk Avoidance
Risk Transfer
Risk Mitigation
Risk Sharing
103. In stakeholder management, which model is used to prioritize stakeholders based on their power, legitimacy, and urgency, helping organizations identify which stakeholders need the most attention?
SWOT Analysis
PEST Analysis
Salience Model
Balanced Scorecard
104. To ensure that all team members understand their roles, responsibilities, and the goals of a project, a project manager creates a document outlining the team’s objectives, expected behaviors, and decision-making processes. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
Risk Register
Project Plan
Team Charter
Stakeholder Analysis
105. In an Agile development environment, which role is primarily responsible for defining the product backlog, prioritizing features, and ensuring that the development team delivers value to the customer?
Scrum Master
Project Manager
Product Owner
Business Analyst
106. In a project where the responsibilities include planning, executing, and closing the project, as well as managing resources, timelines, and stakeholder communication, which role is primarily accountable for ensuring the project is completed successfully and on schedule?
Product Owner
Scrum Master
Business Analyst
Project Manager
107. In an Agile Scrum framework, which role is responsible for facilitating Scrum events, helping the team adhere to Agile principles, and removing any obstacles that may impede the team’s progress?
Product Owner
Project Manager
Team Lead
Scrum Master
108. In the Scrum framework, which event is designed for the development team to reflect on the past sprint, discuss what went well, identify areas for improvement, and plan actionable steps to enhance future sprints?
Sprint Planning
Sprint Review
Daily Scrum
Sprint Retrospective
109. When managing a project, a team identifies that addressing a primary risk may create new issues or challenges. What term describes these new risks that arise as a result of implementing risk responses to the primary risk?
Residual Risk
Primary Risk
Secondary Risk
Tertiary Risk
110. In Agile project management, which term describes the approach where team members quickly come together to address and resolve a specific issue or block in the workflow, often by concentrating their efforts on the task until it is resolved?
Sprint Planning
Swarming
Pair Programming
Backlog Refinement
111. In Agile teams that are dispersed across various locations, which practice involves maintaining a continuous video conferencing link throughout the workday to facilitate spontaneous collaboration and reduce communication delays?
Virtual Stand-Up Meeting
Fishbowl Window
Remote Pair Programming
Daily Scrum
112. Which type of knowledge is characterized by being easily documented, shared, and codified, such as in manuals, reports, or databases?
Tacit Knowledge
Implicit Knowledge
Explicit Knowledge
Experimental Knowledge
113. Which type of knowledge is personal, experiential, and often difficult to articulate or document, typically gained through personal experience and practice?
Tacit Knowledge
Implicit Knowledge
Explicit Knowledge
Experimental Knowledge
114. In project management, which organizational structure gives the project manager significant authority over project resources and decision-making, while still maintaining functional departments?
Weak Matrix
Functional
Strong Matrix
Projectized
115. In which organizational structure are project activities managed within functional departments, with each department handling its own projects and reporting to a functional manager, who has authority over both the project and the resources?
Weak Matrix
Functional
Strong Matrix
Projectized
116. Which term describes the practice of placing all project team members in the same physical location to enhance communication and collaboration, and is often referred to as a "tight matrix" in project management?
Remote Work
Virtual Team
Co-location
Functional Structure
117. Which decision-making technique uses a visual scale where team members show their level of agreement or support for a proposal by holding up a number of fingers (from one to five) or a fist to indicate varying levels of support or disagreement?
Dot Voting
Multi-Voting
Fist to Five
Delphi Method
118. In Agile and Scrum methodologies, which leadership style emphasizes the leader's role in serving the team by removing obstacles, providing support, and fostering an environment for team members to succeed?
Autocratic Leader
Transactional Leader
Transformational Leader
Servant Leader
119. Which problem-solving approach encourages thinking outside traditional frameworks and considering unconventional solutions to arrive at creative and effective answers?
Critical Thinking
Linear Thinking
Lateral Thinking
Analytical Thinking
120. In risk management, who is primarily responsible for managing and addressing a specific risk, including developing and implementing response strategies and monitoring the risk throughout the project?
Risk Manager
Risk Assessor
Risk Owner
Risk Coordinator
121. Which cognitive bias occurs when a person's overall impression of someone or something influences how they perceive specific traits or behaviors, often leading to an overly positive or negative assessment?
Confirmation Bias
Anchoring Bias
Halo Effect
Bandwagon Effect
122. In project management, which term describes the specific, measurable goals that a project is intended to achieve, and which guide the project's planning, execution, and evaluation?
Project Scope
Project Deliverables
Project Milestones
Project Objectives
123. A project manager is overseeing a long-term software development project that is divided into multiple phases. The project is expected to last for two years, but only the first phase has detailed requirements and scope defined. The later phases are more uncertain and will be planned in more detail as the project progresses. The project manager decides to plan the work for the first few months in detail and leave the planning for future phases more general, to be refined as more information becomes available.
Waterfall Planning
Agile Planning
Rolling Wave Planning
Critical Path Method (CPM)
124. A company is considering two potential projects, Project A and Project B. Both projects require an initial investment of $100,000. Project A has a payback period of 2 years, and Project B has a payback period of 3 years. However, when the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is calculated, Project A has an IRR of 8%, while Project B has an IRR of 12%. Which of the following is the most likely true?
Project A because it has a shorter payback period, indicating faster recovery of the initial investment.
Project B because it has a higher IRR, indicating better long-term profitability.
Neither Project A nor Project B
Project A because it has a lower IRR, which means lower risk.
125. A manufacturing company is facing a critical production issue that needs immediate resolution. The CEO, known for making quick decisions based on their experience and expertise, holds a meeting with the department heads. Instead of seeking input from the team, the CEO listens briefly to the updates and then announces a solution that will be implemented immediately. Which type of decision-making style is being used by the CEO in this scenario?
Democratic
Laissez-faire
Autocratic
Consensus-based
126. In a construction project, the team is tasked with building a house. One of the tasks is to install the electrical wiring, and another task is to inspect the electrical work. The inspection cannot begin until the installation of the electrical wiring is fully completed. What type of task dependency is represented by the relationship between the electrical wiring installation and the inspection?
Finish to Finish (FF)
Start to Start (SS)
Finish to Start (FS)
Finish to Start (FS)
127. A project manager is working on a complex software development project. The project involves creating a new feature that is similar to one developed in a previous project. Since the team has prior experience with similar tasks, the project manager consults a senior software engineer who worked on the previous project to provide an estimate for how long the new feature will take to develop. Which activity duration estimation technique is the project manager using in this scenario?
Analogous Estimating
Parametric Estimating
Expert Judgment
Three-Point Estimating
128. A project manager is overseeing the construction of a new office building. The project consists of several tasks, including site preparation, foundation laying, framing, roofing, and interior finishing. After creating the project schedule and identifying the sequence of activities, the project manager determines the longest sequence of dependent tasks that will dictate the total project duration. Any delays in this sequence will directly affect the project's completion date. Which project management concept is the project manager identifying by determining the longest sequence of dependent tasks that affects the project’s duration?
Slack Time
Float
Critical Path
Milestones
129. A project manager is tasked with delivering a complex product under tight deadlines. To ensure the project stays on track, the project manager identifies the critical path but also takes into account resource constraints, such as the availability of key team members. To handle uncertainties, the project manager decides to add buffers at critical points in the schedule to protect the project timeline from delays caused by resource limitations or unforeseen issues. Which project management technique is the project manager using to handle resource constraints and add buffers to protect the schedule?
Critical Path Method (CPM)
Resource Leveling
Critical Chain Method (CCM)
Fast Tracking
130. A project is halfway through its execution phase. The planned budget for the project is $200,000, and the project manager has completed 50% of the work. So far, $120,000 has been spent on the project. Given that the project’s Earned Value (EV) is $100,000, what is the Cost Performance Index (CPI) for this project?
0.83
1.2
0.67
1.0
131. A project is halfway through its execution phase. The planned budget for the project is $200,000, and the project manager has completed 50% of the work. So far, $120,000 has been spent on the project. Given that the project’s Earned Value (EV) is $100,000, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) for this project?
0.83
1.2
0.67
1.0
132. A project to develop a new mobile application has a total budget of $150,000. So far, the project team has completed 60% of the work, and the Earned Value (EV) of the work completed is $90,000. However, the Actual Cost (AC) incurred so far is $100,000. What is the Cost Variance (CV) for this project?
-$10,000
$10,000
$0
-$5,000
133. A project is planned to be 50% complete at this point in time with a Planned Value (PV) of $80,000. However, the actual progress shows that only 40% of the work has been completed, resulting in an Earned Value (EV) of $64,000. What is the Schedule Variance (SV) for this project?
-$16,000
$16,000
-$8,000
$0
134. A project is expected to have a total budget of $200,000. The Earned Value (EV) of the work completed so far is $120,000, and the Actual Cost (AC) incurred so far is $140,000. What is the Variance at Completion (VAC) for this project?
-$20,000
-$40,000
$20,000
$40,000
135. A project manager is analyzing the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) to determine the required cost performance to complete a project within its budget. If the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) value is 0.9, what does this imply?
The project needs to perform 10% better than originally planned to stay within the budget.
The project can perform 10% less efficiently than planned and still stay within the budget.
The project is currently over budget and needs to reduce costs by 10% to stay within budget.
The project is on track to complete within the budget as originally planned.
136. In a project management meeting, the team discusses the importance of documenting and communicating potential issues that could affect the project's success. The project manager is preparing a document to outline these potential issues, their likelihood, and their potential impact, as well as strategies for mitigation.
Risk Report
Project Charter
Status Report
Budget Report
137. A project team is evaluating different risk scenarios to determine their potential impact on the project’s budget. They calculate the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) for various risks to make informed decisions about risk management strategies. What does the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) tell?
The total cost of completing the project within the approved budget
The average impact of potential risks on the project's budget, considering their probability
The schedule variance caused by potential project delays
The amount of time required to complete each project task
138. A project manager is assessing the financial impact of two potential risks on a project. The manager has identified the following risks: Risk A having probability of 30% with a potential impact of $50,000. Risk B having probability of 20% with a potential impact of $70,000. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) for each risk, and what is the total EMV for both risks?
Risk A: $15,000; Risk B: $14,000; Total EMV: $29,000
Risk A: $50,000; Risk B: $70,000; Total EMV: $120,000
Risk A: $10,000; Risk B: $9,000; Total EMV: $19,000
Risk A: $35,000; Risk B: $14,000; Total EMV: $49,000
139. During a project, the project manager decides to conduct a risk audit to review and evaluate the effectiveness of the risk management processes. The audit will involve assessing how well risks are being managed and identifying areas for improvement. What is the primary purpose of conducting a risk audit in project management?
To determine the project's financial status and adherence to the budget
To evaluate the effectiveness of risk management processes and identify improvements
To assess the project's schedule and ensure that all tasks are completed on time
To gather stakeholder feedback on project deliverables and overall satisfaction
140. A project manager is negotiating contract terms for a new construction project. The project involves complex requirements and a high level of uncertainty, so the manager needs a contract type that allows for covering costs while providing an incentive for the contractor to control costs and improve performance. Which contract type would be most appropriate for ensuring that the contractor covers their costs while also being incentivized to minimize costs and enhance performance?
Cost-Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
Fixed-Price Contract
Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
Time and Materials (T&M)
141. A project manager is negotiating the terms of a contract for a software development project with a fixed budget. The project involves a high level of risk and uncertainty, and the manager wants to ensure that the contractor is motivated to control costs and deliver high-quality work while working within a fixed price. Which contract type would be most suitable for a project where the contractor is paid a fixed price but also receives an additional incentive based on cost savings and performance improvements?
Fixed-Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
Cost-Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
Fixed-Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FPEPA)
Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
142. A project manager is developing a stakeholder engagement plan to address the various levels of stakeholder involvement and support for a new project. The goal is to effectively manage stakeholder relationships and ensure successful project outcomes by identifying and addressing different stakeholder attitudes. Which category of stakeholder engagement describes a stakeholder who is not yet aware of the project and its implications?
Unaware
Resistant
Neutral
Supportive
143. In project management, which term describes the continuous refinement of a project plan as more details are known?
Fixed Control
Endless Uncertainty
Progressive Elaboration
Scope Freeze
144. Here’s an MCQ for Planning Poker: Which technique is used by agile teams to estimate the effort required for tasks through collaborative discussion and consensus-based voting, often using cards?
Scrum Poker
Velocity Voting
Planning Poker
Backlog Bidding
145. In an agile team meeting, the facilitator asks for a quick visual vote on a proposed solution, where team members respond with either a "thumbs up," "thumbs down," or "thumbs sideways" to indicate their approval or uncertainty. Which decision-making method is being used?
Polling
Fist of Five
Dot Voting
Roman Voting
146. During a sprint planning session, the team is asked to estimate the relative size of various tasks by categorizing them into sizes like XS, S, M, L, and XL. This approach helps the team quickly understand task complexity without precise time estimates. Which estimation technique is being used?
T-shirt Sizing
Story Mapping
Planning Poker
Fist of Five
147. Which prioritization technique involves comparing items directly against each other in pairs to determine their relative importance or value?
MoSCoW
100 Dollars
Kano Model
Paired Comparison
148. Which prioritization technique categorizes features into Must Have, Should Have, Could Have, and Won't Have to determine their importance and focus on critical deliverables?
MoSCoW
100 Dollars
Kano Model
Paired Comparison
149. Which prioritization technique classifies features into Basic Needs, Performance Needs, Excitement Needs, Indifferent, and Reverse to assess their impact on customer satisfaction?
MoSCoW
100 Dollars
Kano Model
Paired Comparison
150. Which document is used to capture and record the knowledge gained from the experiences and outcomes of a project, helping to improve future projects by reflecting on what went well and what did not?
Risk Register
Stakeholder Register
Lessons Learned Register
Issue Log
151. Which document is used to track and manage problems or issues that arise during a project, including their status, impact, and resolution?
Risk Register
Stakeholder Register
Lessons Learned Register
Issue Log
152. Which document is used to identify and record information about individuals or groups who have an interest in or are affected by a project, including their roles, expectations, and influence?
Risk Register
Stakeholder Register
Lessons Learned Register
Issue Log
153. Which type of motivation is driven by external rewards such as money, praise, or recognition, rather than by internal satisfaction or personal fulfillment?
Intrinsic Motivation
Self-Motivation
Extrinsic Motivation
Social Motivation
154. Which type of motivation is driven by internal rewards, such as personal satisfaction, enjoyment, or a sense of accomplishment, rather than by external incentives?
Intrinsic Motivation
Self-Motivation
Extrinsic Motivation
Social Motivation
155. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the product life cycle?
Introduction
Growth
Maturity
Transition
156. Imagine a project where the team continuously adapts and refines their approach based on frequent feedback and evolving requirements. This method allows for flexibility and iterative development. Which life cycle approach best fits this description?
Exploratory Life Cycle
Linear Phases
Fixed Requirements
Distinct Stages
157. Which method is characterized by its focus on iterative and incremental development with active user involvement and frequent delivery?
Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)
Scrum
Kanban
Crystal
158. Which development methodology focuses on delivering tangible, working features in short iterations, where each feature is designed, built, and tested individually?
Scrum
Extreme Programming (XP)
Feature-Driven Development (FDD)
Rapid Application Development (RAD)
159. Which software development methodology emphasizes continuous feedback, rapid iterations, and practices such as pair programming, test-driven development, and frequent releases?
Scrum
Extreme Programming (XP)
Feature-Driven Development (FDD)
Rapid Application Development (RAD)
160. Which methodology provides a comprehensive framework for agile practices, integrating multiple agile approaches and offering guidelines for selecting and tailoring practices to fit the needs of different projects?
Scrum
Extreme Programming (XP)
Disciplined Agile
Kanban
161. Which of the following is NOT typically considered an interpersonal or team skill?
Active Listening
Conflict Resolution
Time Management
Effective Communication
162. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a component of Emotional Intelligence?
Self-Awareness
Empathy
Conflict Resolution
Self-Regulation
163. Which of the following is a typical method for tracking progress in agile projects?
Work Performance Report
Percent Complete Rule
Iteration Stories Comparison
Status Reports
164. Which of the following is a typical method for tracking progress in tradational projects?
Work Performance Report
Percent Complete Rule
Iteration Stories Comparison
Status Reports
165. In project management, positive risks can result in which of the following outcomes?
Shortened schedule and budget
Increased delays
Decreased customer satisfaction
Higher costs
166. Which estimating technique is the most accurate but takes the most time?
Analogous Estimating
Parametric Estimating
Bottom-Up Estimating
Learning curve Estimating
167. Which of the following is an effect-based risk classification?
Industry regulations
Technology changes
Scope
External factors
168. Which of the following is a source-based risk classification?
Budget
Schedule
Industry regulations
Quality
169. In user experience design, the Gulf of Evaluation refers to the gap between:
The user's intentions and the system's physical actions
The system's feedback and the user's understanding of it
The user's mental model and the system's interface
The system's performance and the user's satisfaction
170. If a user story cannot be completed during a sprint, where is it moved by default?
Next sprint
Product backlog
Sprint backlog
Team's decision list
171. Who decides if a user story that cannot be completed should be reprioritized?
Development team
Product owner
Scrum master
Project manager
172. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the best agile information radiators?
Burnup chart
Burndown chart
Task board
Gantt chart
173. In Agile, which of the following is used instead of a schedule baseline due to constantly changing requirements?
Sprint backlog
Product roadmap
Timeline estimation
Gantt chart
174. Which of the following is NOT part of the INVEST acronym for user stories?
Independent
Negotiable
Valuable
Expandable
175. In risk management, the Tornado Chart is a key tool for visualizing risk sensitivity. Which option best describes its use?
Displays risks in ascending order of importance.
Ranks risks based on sensitivity, with the most influential on top.
Shows cumulative risk interactions over time.
Outlines tasks and timelines in a Gantt chart.
176. In agile practices, in which meeting discussions about successes and failures occur?
Iteration review
Retrospective
Daily stand-up
Sprint planning
177. What is the primary focus of backlog grooming?
Reprioritizing user stories
Developing detailed project plans
Conducting daily stand-ups
Defining project milestones
178. Which of the following accurately describes the difference between the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM) and the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)?
ADM uses all types of dependencies and may include dummy activities, while PDM only uses finish-to-start dependencies.
ADM only uses finish-to-start dependencies and may include dummy activities, while PDM uses all dependency types.
ADM focuses on project milestones, whereas PDM is used for risk analysis.
ADM and PDM are interchangeable and do not differ in their dependency types or use of dummy activities.
179. Which characteristic is NOT part of an Agile PMO?
Value-driven
Invitation-oriented
Multidisciplinary
Risk-focused
180. According to PMI, how is business value defined?
The total cost of the business endeavor
The net quantifiable benefit, including intangible and tangible benefits
The immediate profit from a project
The potential market share gained
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